A 27-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-month history of fatigue, arthralgia, and myalgia. She has a history of urinary tract infections. Medications are an oral contraceptive pill and as-needed naproxen for pain. Following a physical exam, lab
A 65-year-old man is evaluated because of painless neck swelling and difficulty swallowing that has progressively worsened over the last year. He does not have hoarseness, but he feels as though his voice is not as strong as it was in the past.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next? ... is not the most appropriate test.
A 32-year-old man is evaluated for a 2-month history of painless, violaceous skin nodules with surrounding edema on the chest, back, and lower extremities. He reports that he has sex with men. Medical history is significant for AIDS, with a CD4 cell
A 26-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a 3-day history of dysuria with yellow urethral discharge. Following a physical exam and a Gram stain of urethral discharge, what is the most appropriate treatment?.
A radiograph of the hand is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next? ... Measurement of transferrin saturation is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next in this patient.
Antinuclear antibodytest results are negative, and anti-Ro/SSAantibody test results are positive. ... matosusD: Systemic lupus erythematosus. See Test Yourself, page 16, for answer.
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angioplastyD: Surgical revascularization. See Test Yourself, page 19, for answer. Subscribe to MKSAP 16ACP’s MKSAP helps you to:.
B: Immediate surgeryC: Start infliximabD: Start intravenous hydrocortisone. See Test Yourself, page 12, for answer.