A 68-year-old woman is evaluated for involuntary urine loss that occurs with coughing, sneezing, and laughing and occasionally with physical exertion. She has no dysuria, urinary frequency, hematuria, or nocturia but does report vaginal dryness and
A 62-year-old man undergoes a routine examination. He notes increasing fatigue of 8 months' duration but states he can perform his usual daily activities. He has no fever, night sweats, anorexia, or weight loss. The medical history is noncontributory
A 78-year-old woman is evaluated for osteoporosis. She was diagnosed 5 years ago following a fragility fracture in the left hip. Following medical treatment and dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry, what is the most appropriate management?
C. HLA B27 testing. D. Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. ... The correct answer is D: Nucleic acid amplification urine test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
This week's quiz asks readers to determine the most appropriate treatment for a 42-year-old man with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy who is experiencing dyspnea.
A 26-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department with a 3-day history of dysuria with yellow urethral discharge. Following a physical exam and a Gram stain of urethral discharge, what is the most appropriate treatment?.
A 42-year-old man comes to the office to discuss results of imaging studies, which were ordered because of a change in his pattern of chronic migraine. Headache episodes have now improved. Following a physical exam and noncontrast CT scan, what is
Plus, test yourself with questions on sedation and ventilation excerpted from MKSAP 14.
Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test:. Negative. A bone marrow aspiration reveals a “dry tap.” A peripheral blood smear and bone marrow biopsy are shown.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?.