A 32-year-old man comes to the office after being told at a health fair screening that he had blood in his urine.
A 57-year-old man is evaluated during a routine visit. History is significant for hypertension. Following a physical exam and lab studies, what is the most appropriate treatment?
ACP Internist has brought back its MKSAP quiz. This popular feature was so heavily requested by our readers that we're restoring it in our print edition and ACP Internist Weekly e-mail updates.
A 28-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-week history of “stuffiness,” decreased hearing, and discomfort in his left ear. He has no other symptoms and otherwise feels well except for mild nasal congestion that he attributes to seasonal allergies.
Home measurement of high blood pressure overcomes variability inherent in office measurements, delivers better assessment of systolic pressure (and hence, of possible cardiovascular events) and offers a better chance of discontinuing drug therapy.
9. /L). Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.
A 75-year-old woman is evaluated in the hospital 4 hours after onset of chest pain with findings of an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. She was taken emergently to the catheterization laboratory and underwent emergency percutaneous coronary
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Absolute neutrophil count:. 400/µL (0.4 10. 9. /L). Direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test:.
Blood cultures are pending. Stool occult blood test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?