A 27-year-old woman is evaluated during a follow-up visit for high blood pressure that manifested 4 months after she began taking an oral contraceptive pill. Despite stopping the oral contraceptive pill, her blood pressure has remained high.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next in this patient?
460 µg/24 h (1, 268 nmol/24 h). Urine potassium, spot test:.
A 55-year-old woman is seen in follow-up for a mildly pruritic eruption on and surrounding her right nipple, which developed about 5 months ago. She has no family history of eczema or psoriasis, and she is otherwise healthy. What is the most likely
A 67-year-old woman is evaluated for the abrupt onset of right-sided pleuritic chest pain and moderate dyspnea seemingly triggered by an episode of vigorous coughing during symptoms typical of an upper respiratory infection. She smokes and has COPD.
Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next? ... is not the most appropriate test.
The patient is unable to touch his toes. Straight-leg-raising test results are normal.
A 64-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-week history of dyspnea, dry cough, fever, chills, night sweats, and fatigue, which have not responded to treatment with azithromycin and levofloxacin; she has lost 2.2 kg (5 lb) during that time. Based upon
A urine pregnancy test is negative. Samples are obtained for nucleic acid amplification testing for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis.
CT is readily available, can be quickly performed, and is the test of choice to rule out intracerebral hemorrhage, subarachnoid bleeding, and hydrocephalus, which may require rapid neurosurgical intervention. ... CT of the head without contrast is the