CT is readily available, can be quickly performed, and is the test of choice to rule out intracerebral hemorrhage, subarachnoid bleeding, and hydrocephalus, which may require rapid neurosurgical intervention. ... CT of the head without contrast is the
A 62-year-old man is evaluated for an asymptomiatic nodule on his should that has been present for more than 1 year. Skin findings are shown. What is the most likely diagnosis?.
A 64-year-old woman is evaluated for a 6-week history of dyspnea, dry cough, fever, chills, night sweats, and fatigue, which have not responded to treatment with azithromycin and levofloxacin; she has lost 2.2 kg (5 lb) during that time. Based upon
A 68-year-old man was admitted to the hospital 3 days ago for a non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction and underwent cardiac catheterization via the right groin. Today, the patient reports pain in his left toes and diffuse soreness in the left calf.
Direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test:. Negative. A bone marrow aspiration reveals a “dry tap.” A peripheral blood smear and bone marrow biopsy are shown.
A recent HIV test was negative. He has used smokeless tobacco for 14 years.
A 30-year-old woman is evaluated for management of new-onset atrial fibrillation. She has a history of tetralogy of Fallot that was repaired at age 18 months. She has had no cardiovascular concerns since that time and has not had regular follow-up
Test Yourself MKSAP image 2010, American College of Physicians, Medical Knowledge Self-Assessment Program (MKSAP.
A 50-year-old woman is evaluated for a rash on the back of her elbows and knees. A similar rash has occurred in the past, with her first episode as a young adult.A 50-year-old woman is evaluated for a rash on the back of her elbows and knees. A
12. and folate are normal. Peripheral blood smear is shown. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnostic test to perform next to evaluate this patient's anemia?